More induction¶
Patterns and sequences · level 8, lesson 2 of 6
A question to start¶
Look at \(7^n - 1\) for the first few \(n\):
Every one is a multiple of 6. Now compare \(2^n\) and \(n^2\):
| \(n\) | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| \(2^n\) | 2 | 4 | 8 | 16 | 32 | 64 | 128 |
| \(n^2\) | 1 | 4 | 9 | 16 | 25 | 36 | 49 |
\(2^n\) wins at \(n = 1\), ties at 2, loses at 3, ties at 4, and from 5 on seems to win by more and more. Does it win forever? And here is a third puzzle: a famous "proof" by induction that all horses are the same colour. It is obviously false. Where exactly does it break? Induction is not only for sums, and this lesson shows it at work on all three.
The idea¶
Induction for divisibility¶
"6 divides \(N\)" means \(N = 6q\) for some whole number \(q\). To prove that \(6\) divides \(7^n - 1\) for every \(n \ge 1\), the inductive step must get from \(7^m - 1\) to \(7^{m+1} - 1\). The trick is to make the old expression appear inside the new one:
We subtracted 7 and added it back, which changes nothing but makes \(7^m - 1\) appear. Now if \(7^m - 1 = 6q\), then \(7^{m+1} - 1 = 7 \cdot 6q + 6 = 6(7q + 1)\), a multiple of 6. With the base case \(7^1 - 1 = 6\), induction finishes the proof.
(There is also a direct reason. By the geometric sum formula, \(7^n - 1 = (7 - 1)(7^{n-1} + 7^{n-2} + \cdots + 7 + 1)\), and the first factor is 6. Seeing two proofs of the same fact is a good way to understand both.)
Induction for inequalities¶
For inequalities the step is a chain: start from the left side of \(P(m + 1)\), use the hypothesis to get a first inequality, then keep going until you reach the right side. To prove \(2^n > n^2\) for \(n \ge 5\):
Now we need \(2m^2 \ge (m + 1)^2\). That says \(2m^2 \ge m^2 + 2m + 1\), which is \(m^2 - 2m - 1 \ge 0\), which is \((m - 1)^2 \ge 2\). This is true whenever \(m \ge 3\), and certainly for \(m \ge 5\). So the chain is
With the base case \(2^5 = 32 > 25 = 5^2\), induction proves \(2^n > n^2\) for every \(n \ge 5\).
Notice the base case had to be \(n = 5\), not 1. The statement is false at \(n = 3\), and \(P(4)\) (\(16 > 16\)) is false too, so no chain could start there. Also notice the step only needed \(m \ge 3\). It is the base that forces the start at 5. When an inequality holds "from some point on", both parts matter: the step tells you the inequality can never be lost once it holds, and the base tells you where it first holds.
Bernoulli's inequality¶
In level 7 you used the fact that for \(h \ge -1\) and every whole number \(n \ge 1\),
Proof by induction. Base: \((1 + h)^1 = 1 + h\). ✓ Step: assume \((1 + h)^m \ge 1 + mh\). Multiply both sides by \(1 + h\), which is allowed because \(1 + h \ge 0\) (multiplying by a negative number would flip the inequality):
since \(mh^2 \ge 0\). ∎ The condition \(h \ge -1\) was used at exactly one point, which is how you know it is needed.
Sometimes prove something stronger¶
Here is a surprise. Try to prove that \(\frac{1}{1^2} + \frac{1}{2^2} + \cdots + \frac{1}{n^2} < 2\) for every \(n\). The step gets stuck: knowing the sum to \(m\) is less than 2 says nothing about whether adding \(\frac{1}{(m + 1)^2}\) keeps it below 2. The hypothesis is too weak to carry along.
The fix is to prove a stronger statement, one that leaves room: \(\displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{1}{k^2} \le 2 - \frac{1}{n}\).
- Base: \(1 \le 2 - 1\). ✓
- Step: assume the sum to \(m\) is at most \(2 - \frac1m\). Then the sum to \(m + 1\) is at most \(2 - \frac1m + \frac{1}{(m + 1)^2}\). This is at most \(2 - \frac{1}{m + 1}\) exactly when \(\frac{1}{(m + 1)^2} \le \frac1m - \frac{1}{m + 1} = \frac{1}{m(m + 1)}\), which is true because \(m(m + 1) < (m + 1)^2\).
So the sum is at most \(2 - \frac1n\), which is less than 2. ∎ A stronger hypothesis gives a stronger step. (The sum actually closes in on \(\frac{\pi^2}{6} \approx 1.645\), a famous result of Euler's.)
The horses¶
"Theorem." In any group of \(n\) horses, all the horses are the same colour.
"Proof." Base case: in a group of 1 horse, all the horses are the same colour. ✓ Step: assume every group of \(m\) horses is one colour, and take a group of \(m + 1\) horses, lined up as \(h_1, h_2, \ldots, h_{m+1}\). Leave out the last one: \(h_1, \ldots, h_m\) is a group of \(m\), so they are one colour. Leave out the first: \(h_2, \ldots, h_{m+1}\) is a group of \(m\), so they are one colour. The two groups overlap, so they share a colour, and all \(m + 1\) are one colour.
Where it breaks. The two groups overlap in \(h_2, \ldots, h_m\). When \(m = 1\) that is empty: from two horses \(h_1, h_2\), the first group is \(\{h_1\}\) and the second is \(\{h_2\}\), and nothing links them. So the step from \(P(1)\) to \(P(2)\) fails. The argument is fine for \(m \ge 2\), but that does not help, because \(P(2)\) is false. One broken link in the chain is enough. The lesson: check that your inductive step works for the very first value of \(m\), by trying it on the smallest case.
Worked examples¶
1. A divisibility proof. Prove that \(n^3 - n\) is divisible by 6 for every \(n \ge 1\).
- Base: \(1 - 1 = 0 = 6 \times 0\). ✓
- Step: \((m + 1)^3 - (m + 1) = m^3 + 3m^2 + 3m + 1 - m - 1 = (m^3 - m) + 3m(m + 1)\).
- The first part is a multiple of 6 by the hypothesis. In the second, \(m(m + 1)\) is a product of two neighbouring numbers, so it is even, and \(3 \times \text{even}\) is a multiple of 6. The sum of two multiples of 6 is one too. ∎
2. Factorials beat powers of 2. Prove \(n! > 2^n\) for every \(n \ge 4\).
- Base: \(4! = 24 > 16 = 2^4\). ✓
- Step: \((m + 1)! = (m + 1) \cdot m! > (m + 1) \cdot 2^m \ge 2 \cdot 2^m = 2^{m+1}\), using the hypothesis and then \(m + 1 \ge 2\). ∎
(The statement is false for \(n = 1, 2, 3\): \(1 < 2\), \(2 < 4\), \(6 < 8\).)
3. A step that works with no base. Someone claims \(1 + 2 + \cdots + n = \frac{(n + \frac12)^2}{2}\). The step works: if the sum to \(m\) is \(\frac{(m + \frac12)^2}{2} = \frac{m^2 + m + \frac14}{2}\), adding \(m + 1\) gives \(\frac{m^2 + 3m + 2 + \frac14}{2} = \frac{(m + \frac32)^2}{2}\), the formula for \(m + 1\). But the base fails: \(\frac{(1.5)^2}{2} = 1.125 \ne 1\). The claimed formula is always \(\frac18\) too big. (Compare with the true \(\frac{n(n + 1)}{2} = \frac{n^2 + n}{2}\).)
Try it¶
- Prove that \(5^n - 1\) is divisible by 4 for every \(n \ge 1\).
- Prove that \(9^n - 1\) is divisible by 8 for every \(n \ge 1\).
- Prove that \(n^3 + 2n\) is divisible by 3 for every \(n \ge 1\).
- Prove that \(4^n + 15n - 1\) is divisible by 9 for every \(n \ge 1\).
- Prove that \(3^n > n^3\) for every \(n \ge 4\). Where does it fail below 4?
- Prove that \(2^n \ge n + 1\) for every \(n \ge 0\). Then explain how it follows from Bernoulli's inequality.
- Where does this go wrong? "Every \(n \ge 1\) satisfies \(n \le 5\). Base: \(1 \le 5\). Step: if \(m \le 5\) then ... \(m + 1 \le 6\)." Explain why the step cannot be finished.
- In the horses "proof", for which values of \(m\) is the step \(P(m) \Rightarrow P(m + 1)\) logically correct? Why does that not rescue the theorem?
Answers
- Base: \(5 - 1 = 4\). ✓ Step: \(5^{m+1} - 1 = 5(5^m - 1) + 4\). If \(5^m - 1 = 4q\), this is \(4(5q + 1)\). ∎
- Base: \(9 - 1 = 8\). ✓ Step: \(9^{m+1} - 1 = 9(9^m - 1) + 8 = 9 \cdot 8q + 8 = 8(9q + 1)\). ∎ (So \(3^{2n} - 1\) is always a multiple of 8. In fact every odd square is one more than a multiple of 8.)
- Base: \(1 + 2 = 3\). ✓ Step: \((m + 1)^3 + 2(m + 1) = m^3 + 3m^2 + 3m + 1 + 2m + 2 = (m^3 + 2m) + 3(m^2 + m + 1)\), a multiple of 3 plus a multiple of 3. ∎
- Base: \(4 + 15 - 1 = 18 = 9 \times 2\). ✓ Step: \(4^{m+1} + 15(m + 1) - 1 = 4(4^m + 15m - 1) - 60m + 4 + 15m + 14 = 4(4^m + 15m - 1) - 45m + 18\). The first part is a multiple of 9 by the hypothesis, and \(-45m + 18 = 9(2 - 5m)\). ∎
- Base: \(3^4 = 81 > 64 = 4^3\). ✓ Step: \(3^{m+1} = 3 \cdot 3^m > 3m^3\), and \(3m^3 \ge (m + 1)^3\) exactly when \(\left(1 + \frac1m\right)^3 \le 3\); for \(m \ge 4\), \(\left(\frac54\right)^3 \approx 1.95 \le 3\), and the left side only shrinks as \(m\) grows. ∎ Below 4: \(n = 1\) (\(3 > 1\)) and \(n = 2\) (\(9 > 8\)) are true, but \(n = 3\) fails: \(27 = 27\), not greater.
- Base \(n = 0\): \(1 \ge 1\). ✓ Step: \(2^{m+1} = 2 \cdot 2^m \ge 2(m + 1) = 2m + 2 \ge m + 2\). ∎ From Bernoulli with \(h = 1\): \(2^n = (1 + 1)^n \ge 1 + n\).
- From \(m \le 5\) you can only get \(m + 1 \le 6\), never \(m + 1 \le 5\) (take \(m = 5\)). The step is false at \(m = 5\), so the chain breaks there, which is good, because the claim is false for \(n = 6\).
- For every \(m \ge 2\), the two groups of \(m\) overlap in at least one horse, so the reasoning is valid. But the chain needs every link starting from the base, and the link from \(P(1)\) to \(P(2)\) is broken. Since \(P(2)\) is never established, the valid links after it carry nothing.
Common mistake¶
Starting the base case too early (or too late). For "\(2^n > n^2\)" the base is \(n = 5\). Checking \(n = 1\) and then proving the step for \(m \ge 3\) leaves a gap, and the statement is false inside that gap. Make sure the step works for every \(m\) from the base onwards.
Dividing or multiplying an inequality by something that might be negative. In Bernoulli's inequality, multiplying by \(1 + h\) is only safe because \(1 + h \ge 0\). Always say why each multiplication keeps the direction.
Where it leads¶
- Back: Proof by induction · Next: Strong induction.
- Level 8 page · Patterns topic page
- Divisibility, remainders and why \(7^n - 1\) is a multiple of 6 seen through clock arithmetic: Number theory.
- How fast \(2^n\), \(n^2\) and \(n!\) grow: Level 7: sequences as functions.
- Inequalities like Bernoulli's are everyday tools in limits: MAT137 Unit 11 (sequences).